As he continues to impress for AC Milan, Tiemoue Bakayoko is reportedly edging towards a permanent departure from Chelsea in the summer.
The 24-year-old struggled early on this season, as it appeared as though the issues which led to a frustrating season at Stamford Bridge last year were set to haunt him in Milan too.
However, although injuries have also forced Gennaro Gattuso into handing the former Monaco ace a more prominent role, he has grabbed his opportunity with both hands and has continued to play a crucial role in the heart of the midfield for the Rossoneri.
Such has been his impact, he has been voted as the Man of the Match for the last three games by the supporters in the official club vote, and it certainly appears as though he is now beginning to settle and show his worth for the Italian giants.
As noted by Calciomercato, that has seemingly now convinced sporting director Leonardo to move forward with securing his services on a permanent basis from Chelsea.
However, it’s added that Milan want a ‘discount’ on the €35m option to buy which was agreed this past summer, and so it remains to be seen if Chelsea are willing to accept that condition.
The Italian giants may have to be cautious though, as if Bakayoko’s performances this season have impressed others around Europe, it could lead to a rival bid being made which could satisfy Chelsea’s previous demands.
Nevertheless, Calciomercato add that the French international is keen on staying with the Rossoneri, and so if he continues his impressive form in the coming months, it could ultimately be a no-brainer for the club as they look to secure Champions League football for next season.